An Honest Conversation with a Communist

 Question: “You assert that the redistribution of wealth and/or transfer of property rights from the bourgeoisie (owning class) to the proletariat (The working class) necessarily uses forces in violation of the non-aggression principle, but doesn't the exploitation of labor by the owner do much of the same thing, or at minimum have the same effect. Could one claim that the working class expropriation of the means of production be considered self-defense under the non-aggression principle?”











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